InstructionsComplete Lesson Survey Back
Results: 5 out of 5 correct
1
Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding the trend in congenital syphilis in the United States?
You chose this option correctly:
The number of cases has increased in recent years
The number of cases has declined in recent years
The number of cases has stayed about the same in recent years
The number of cases is so low that it is difficult to determine any trends
2
Which one of the following best describes a primary syphilis (chancre) lesion?
A painful soft ulcer that persists for 2 to 4 days
A large serpiginous ulcer that has a soft, beefy edge and persists for 2 to 4 days
Multiple, painful, shallow ulcers that have an erythematous base and persist for 3 to 4 days
You chose this option correctly:
A painless, well-circumscribed ulcer that persists for 1 to 6 weeks
3
Which one of the following is TRUE regarding the following definitions related to late latent syphilis?
Late latent syphilis refers to syphilis infection of at least 12 weeks in duration
Late latent syphilis refers to syphilis infection of at least 6 months in duration
Late latent syphilis refers to syphilis infection of at least 6 weeks in duration
You chose this option correctly:
Late latent syphilis refers to syphilis infection of at least 1 year in duration
4
A 24-year-old man presents to a clinic with a diffuse macular and papular rash on his chest, back, hands, and feet. He had two new male sexual exposures approximately 6 weeks ago. He now has a positive Venereal Diseases Research Laboratory (VDRL) test with a titer of 1:256. He had a negative syphilis test about 3 months ago. He has no other symptoms and his neurologic examination is normal. He has no known antibiotic allergies.
What treatment is indicated?
Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM in a single dose plus azithromycin 1 g orally in a single dose
You chose this option correctly:
Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM in a single dose
Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM weekly for 3 total doses
Doxycycline 200 mg twice a day for 3 days
5
A 41-year-old man with HIV presents with headaches and new hearing loss. He has a positive serum Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test with a titer of 1:64. A lumbar puncture is performed and shows 43 white blood cells/mm3 and a cerebrospinal VDRL titer of 1:32. He does not have any antibiotic allergies.
What treatment should be recommended for this man?
You chose this option correctly:
Aqueous crystalline penicillin G 18–24 million units per day, administered as 3–4 million units IV every 4 hours or continuous infusion, for 10–14 days
Ceftriaxone 1 gram IV daily for 3 days
Doxycycline orally 100 mg twice daily for 7 days
Ceftriaxone 1 gram IV twice daily for 7 days
CME credits are available, but you have disabled them in your CE profile (Continuing Medical Education AMA PRA Category 1 Credit™).
Results: 5 out of 5 correct
